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Full name:.WRITTEN TEST FOR GOOD SS. ENGLISH 9 
PART TWO: PHONETICS 
I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D: 
1. A. clerk
B. terse
C. term
D. jerk
2. A. hand
B. bank
C. sand
D. band
3. A. honey
B. rhythm
C. exhume
D. behold
4. A. dormitory
B. information
C. organization
D. forward
5. A. food
B. shoot
C. shook
D. spool
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling 
A, B, C, or D: 
 6. A. exchange
B. invite
C. economic
D. embroider
 7. A. intermediate
B. documentary
C. reputation
D. communicate
 8. A. benefit
B. environment
C. wonderful
D. category
 9. A. century
B. conclusion
C. available
D. ambition
10.A. contain
B. achieve
C. improve
D. visit
PART III VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR 
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: 
11. I had to get up early, ...I would miss the train.
A. otherwise
B. if not	
C. so that
D. but
12. My parents are going to take three days.next month to help my brother move his house.
A. at	
B. over 
C. off
D. out
13. English is used as an access ..a world scholarship and world trade.
A. into
B. to
C. for
D. towards
14. Parents love and support their children .the children misbehave or do foolish things.
A. if
B. since
C. only if
D. even if
15. The Historical Museum is becoming ... crowded.
A. much and more
B. more and more
C. much and much
D. more and much
16. The scheme allows students from many countries to communicate.
A. with other
B. themselves
C. each other
D. with one another
17. Have you ever read anything...Earnest Hengmingway?
A. by
B. of
C. from
D. for
18. Not a good movie,...?
A. did it
B. didn’t it
C. was it
D. wasn’t it
19. Hoi An is...for its old, small and tile-roofed houses.
A. well-done
B. well-dressed
C. well-organized
D. well-known
20. Hurry up! They have only got...seats left.
A. a lot of
B. plenty of
C. a little
D. a few
21. The party, at .. I was the guest honor, was extremely enjoyable.
A. that
B. who
C. which
D. where
22. _______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
A. All	 B. That all	 C. Since all	 D. Why all
23. I came ..................an old friend while I was walking along the street.
 A. across
 B. into
 C. over
 D. for
24. Everyone ..................Tom was invited to the party.
 A. as
 B. from
 C. but
 D. for
25. If you .............to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess now.
 A. listen
 B. will listen 
 C. listened
 D. had listened
II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. 
26. He has little...of winning a prize.	EXPECT
27. He resigned for a...of reasons.	VARIOUS
28. He is very generous and everyone admires his... .	SELF
29. It seems...to change the timetable so often.	LOGIC
30. It is...that you missed the meeting.	FORTUNE
31. Could you...the picture over the sofa?	STRAIGHT
32. She wanted to have her skirt...	LONG
33. They all cheered...as their team came out.	 ENTHUSIASM
34. He will not benefit...from the deal.	FINANCE
35. “Look after your mother,” were his.. ...words.	DIE
III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below ( make any necessary changes) 
Go over
give off
hold back
call off
pay off
bring out
put aside
make up for
see( someone) off
put( someone) through to
run out of
bring( someone) round
36. They had to .................. the football match because of weather.
37. We managed to .................. by splashing his face with water.
38. Could you .................. the manager, please?
39. The detective carefully .................. the facts with the witness.
40. We’ve .................. sugar, could you go and buy some?
41. As the detective stories become popular once again, the publishing house decides to .................. a new edition of Christie’s work.
42. The film was so sad that she couldn’t .................. her tears.
43. Ten employees were .................. as there wasn’t enough work for us.
44. He bought some flowers to .................. his bad behavior.
45. The old widow warned her two sons not to spend so much money so fast in case that some thing could happen and told them to .................. some money for the future.
PART IV: READING 
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
NEW HUNT FOR LIFE IN SPACE
	British space scientists are planning to join the American in the race to find evidence of life on (46) ... planets. Alan Penny and his team at the Rutherford Appleton Laboratory have designed a telescope that is 40 times more powerful than Hubble. Known as ‘Darwin’, his telescope could tell if planets 50 (47) ...years away have any kind of life on them. Two days (48) ..., NASA scientists had shown a proof that one of Jupiter’s moons could support life, Penny announced that his telescope may be included in a European Space Agency mission. The Darwin project, with a (49) ... of 500 million, is on a short list of two proposals. If approved it will probably be (50) ... around 2015, its destination somewhere between Mars and Jupiter. The blueprint is actually for five telescopes positioned 50 meters apart in space, slowly circling a (51) ... processing station. The combined data from these telescopes would build up a full picture of a planet, picking out faint images that have never been seen before. Darwin would not be able to take detailed photographs of the planets it (52) ..., but Penny believes a second- generation telescope could be sent up to do this. He claims it is worthwhile mapping the universe around our (53) ...galaxy, even though these planets lie (54)_______ our reach for the moment. The European Space Agency will make its decision (55) ... Darwin within three years.
46. 	A. another 	B. other 	C. others 	D. the other 
47. 	A. light 	B. lighten 	C. lightening 	D. lighting 
48. 	A. following	B. after	C. next	D. later
49. 	A. price	B. schedule	C. charge	D. budget
50. 	A. driven	B. fetched	C. launched	D. taken
51. 	A. central 	B. centre	C. middle	D. heart
52. 	A. invents	B. searches	C. discovers	D. looks
53. 	A. alone	B. same	C. one	D. own
54. 	A. out	B. toward	C. beyond	D. over
55. 	A. of	B. on 	C. about 	D. with
II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. 
Traveling to all corners of the world is (56) ... easier and easier. We live (57) ... a global village, but how well do we know and understand each other ? Here is (58) ... simple test. Imagine you have arranged a meeting at 4 p.m. What time should you expect your foreign business colleagues to arrive? If they are German, they'll be exactly (59) ... time. If they are American, they'll probably be 15 minutes early. If they are British, they be 15 minutes (60) ..., and you should allow up to an hour for the Indians. Therefore, these are some small advice in (61) ... not to behave badly abroad. In France you shouldn’t sit down in a cafard until you are shaken hands with everyone you know. In Afghanistan you'd better spend at last 5 minutes (62) ... hello. In Pakistan you mustn’t wink. It is offensive. In the Middle East you must never use the left hand for greeting, eating, drinking or smoking. Also, you should care not to admire (63) ... in your host’s home. They will feel that they have to give it to you. In Russia you must your hosts drink for drink or they will think you are unfriendly. In Thailand you should clasp your hands (64) ... and lower your head and your eyes when you greet someone. In America you should eat your hamburger with both hands and as quickly as (65) .... You shouldn’t try to have a conversation until it is eaten.
III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: 
	Man is a land animal, but he is also closely tied to the sea. Throughout history the sea has served the need of man. The sea has provided man with food and a convenient way to travel to many parts of the world. Today, nearly two thirds of the world’s population live within 80 km of the sea coast. 
In the modern technological world, the sea offers many resources to help mankind survive. Resources on land are beginning to be used up. The sea, however, still can be hoped to supply many of man’s needs. The list of riches of the sea yet to be developed by man’s technology is impressive. Oil and gas explorations have been carried out for nearly 30 years. A lot of valuable minerals exist on the ocean floor ready to be mined. 
Fish farming promises to be a good way to produce large quantities of food. The culture of fish and shellfish is an ancient skill practiced in the past mainly by Oriental people. 
Besides oil and gas, the sea may offer new sources of energy. Experts believe that the warm temperature of the ocean can be used in a way similar to the steam in a steamship. Ocean currents and waves offer possible use as a source of energy. 
Technology is enabling man to explore ever more deeply under the sea. The development of strong, new materials has made this possible. 
The technology to harvest the sea continues to improve. Experts believe that by the year 2050s the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the food, minerals, and energy sources of the sea will be largely solved.
66. The best title for this passage is ....
A. Sea Harvest.
C. Sea Food.
B. Technology and the Exploiting of the Sea.
D. Man and Sea.
67. The major things that the sea offers man are ....
A. food, energy sources and minerals.
C. minerals and oil.
B. fish and oil.
D. ocean currents and waves.
68. The sea serves the needs of man because ....
A. it provides man with sea food.
C. it supplies man with minerals.
B. it offers oil to man.
D. all of the above.
69. The word Oriental people in the fourth paragraph probably means ....
A. European people.
C. Asian people.
B. African people.
D. American people.
70. We can conclude from the passage that ....
A. the sea resources have largely been used up.
B. the sea, in a broad sense, hasn’t yet been developed.
C. the problems that prevent us from fully exploiting the sea have already been solved.
D. by the year 2050, the technology will be good enough to exploit all the sea resources.
PART V: WRITING: 
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. 
71. It was wrong of you to allow a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
- You should ........................................................................................................
72. I could realize how important the family is only after I left home.
- Not until ...........................................................................................................
73. Mrs. Green is proud of her son’s contribution to the play.
- Mrs. Green is proud of what ................................................................
74. They recruited very few young engineers. - Hardly .............................................................................
75. Only two out of the five rooms we have booked have air conditioning.
- We have booked five rooms, only .................................................................
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway. 
76. It's possible Karen didn't hear her name being called. might
→ Karen .  her name being called.
77. “Don’t forget to lock the house when you go out, William,” his mother said. reminded
→ William’s mother  when he went out. 
78. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. against
→ Against . .. she lost
79. There weren't many guests at the wedding. only
→ There were  guests at the wedding.
80. Promise to look after it and you can borrow my tennis racquet. long
→ You can borrow my tennis racquet, . to look after it.
III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the environment of your school . 
 (3 pts)
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ĐÁP ÁN VÀ BIỂU ĐIỂM
PART ONE: LISTENING (3.0 pts)
I. Listen and fill in the gaps with the adjectives or adverbs you hear. (0,2 x 10 = 2.0 pts) 
1. comfortable
2. delicious
3. great
4. suitable
5. fully
6. sleepy
7. thankful
8. terribly
9. probably
10. immediately
II. Listen to the conversation and circle the correct answers. (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt) 
11. Which course is the man interested in?
A. English
B. Mandarin
C. Japanese
12. What kind of course is the man seeking?
A. Daytime
B. Evenings
C. Weekends
13. How long does the man want to study?
A. 12 weeks
B. 6 months
C. 8 months
14. What proficiency level is the student?
A. Beginner
B. Intermediate
C. Advanced
15. When does the man want to start the course?
A. March
B. June
C. September
PART TWO: PHONETICS ( 2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
1. A. clerk
4. B. information
2. B. bank
5. C. shook
3. B. rhythm
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0,2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
 6. C. economic
9. A. century
 7. D. communicate
10.D. visit
 8. B. environment
PART III VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR ( 6.5 pts) 
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (0,2 x 15 = 3 pts)
11. A. otherwise
16. D. with one another
21. C. which
12. C. off
17. A. by
22. B. That all
13. B. to
18. C. was it
23. A. across
14. D. even if
19. D. well-known
24. C. but
15. B. more and more
20. D. a few
25. D. had listened
II. Use the words given to form a word that fits in the space. (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
26. expectation
31. straighten
27. variety
32. lengthened
28. selflessness/ unselfishness
33. enthusiastically
29. illogical
34. financially
30. unfortunate
35. dying
III. Complete each of the following sentences with one of the phrasal verbs given below ( make any necessary changes) (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
36. call off
41. bring out
37. bring him round
42. hold back
38. put through to
43. paid off
39. went over
44. make up for
40. run out of 
45. put aside
PART IV. READING: 
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.1 x 10 = 1.0 pt)
46. B. other 
51. A. central
47. A. light
52. C. discovery
48. D. later
53. D. own
49. D. budget
54. C. beyond
50. C. launched
55. B. on
II. Fill in each blank with one suitable word to complete the passage. (0.2 x 10 = 2.0 pts)
56. getting/ becoming
61. order
57. in
62. saying
58. a
63. anything
59. on
64. together
60. late
65. possible
III. Circle the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the following questions: (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
66. B
69. C
67. A
70. D
68. D
PART V: WRITING: (4.0 pts)
I. Rewrite the sentences without changing the meaning. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
71. You should not have allowed a four-year-old child to walk home alone.
72. Not until I left home, could/ did I realize how important the family is.
73. Mrs. Green is proud of what her son contributes/ can contribute to the play.
74. Hardly any young engineers were recruited.
75. We have booked five rooms, only two of which have air-conditioning.
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given in brackets. Do not change the words in anyway
. (0.2 x 5 = 1.0 pt)
76. Karen might not have heard her name being called.
77. William's mother reminded him to lock the house when he went out.
78. Against everyone's expectation she lost.
79. There were only a few guests at the wedding.
80. You can borrow my tennis racquet, as/ so long as you promise to look after it.
III. Write a paragraph (of about 150 words) in which you suggest several ways to protect the environment of your school. (3pts)
- Bài viết đủ mở bài, thân bài, kết luận. (0.5pt)
- Thân bài nêu được ít nhất 3 lí do; có sử dụng connectors and link words (2,0)
- Kết luận: nêu ý kiến của bản thân (0.25) ; đủ số lượng từ (0,25)
Full name:.WRITTEN TEST FOR GOOD SS. ENGLISH 9 - No 2
I. PHONETICS:
a. Choose one word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (3 0,2 = 0,6 pt)
1.	A. uniform	B. ticket	C. tide	D. inspiration
2.	A. great	B. bread	C. break	D. steak
3.	A. cleaned 	B. repaired	C. planned	D. laughed
b. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling A, B, C, or D: (3 0,2 = 0,6 pt)
4. 	A. understand 	B. engineer 	C. benefit 	D. Vietnamese
5. A. inspiration	B. experience	C. communicate	D. embroidery
6. A. money 	B. army	C. afraid 	D. people 
II VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR:
a. Circle the best answer A, B, C or D to complete the sentences: (20 0,2 = 4,0 pts)
7. Hurry up, there’s  time left.
A. a little	B. a few	C. little	D. few	
8. For lunch, you may have _________ fish or chicken.
A. both	B. neither	C. not only	D. either
9. The clerk said she was tired  hearing complaints day after day.
	A. with	B. of	C. about	 D. for
10. You and I are busy right now, ?
A. aren’t I 	B. aren’t we	 C. we aren’t	 D. aren’t you	
11. We arrived  to have some coffee before class.
A. enough early	B. early enough	 C. too early	D. early too	
12. “What are you doing?”
 “I  the flowers. They  wonderful!”
A. am smelling / smell	B. smell / smell	
C. am smelling / are smelling	 D. smell / are smelling
13. Do you know _________ ?
A. who how many people go on Sundays to church
B. who go to church on Sundays how many people
C. how many people who go on Sundays to church
D. how many people who go to church on Sundays
14. We watch the cat ________ the tree.
A. climbed	 B. climb	C. had climbed	D. was climbing
15. If we had known your new address, we ________ to see you.
A. came	B. will come	C. would come	D. would have come
16. He looked forward to ________ his first pay packet.
A. receive	B. have received	C. be receiving	D. receiving
17. “Let’s go dancing, _________?” – “Yes, let’s.”
A. won’t we	B. don’t we	C. do we	D. shall we
18. I wish I _________ all about this matter a week ago.
A. knew	 B. know	 C. had known	 D. B & C are correct.
19. He was _________ he could not wake up.
A. very tired that	B. such tired that	C. too tired that	D. so tired that
20. Joan asked _________.
A. if there was coffee	 B. there was coffee
C. was there coffee	D. where was the coffee
21. I ____ my house ____. That is why there is all this mess.
A. had – paint	B. have – paint	C. am having – painted	D. had had - paint
22. He was made _________ for two hours.
A. to wait	 B. wait	C. waiting	 D. waited
17. “Where are my jeans?” “They _________ at the moment. Sorry.”
A. are washing	B. were washed	C. are washed	 D. are being washed
23. It took weeks to get used to  someone else around.
A. have	B. having	C. had	D. has
24 he comes in half an hour, I shall go alone.
A. If	B. Unless	C. Because	D. When
“Did you like the new French movie?”
“My wife liked it but I was a little .”
A. boring	B. bored	C. boredom	D. bore
25. I want to have my suit  . I’m going to a wedding on Saturday.
A. cleaned	B. cleaning	C. clean	 D. to clean
26. He turned  the light so as not to waste electricity.
A. off	B. of	C. on	 D. down
b. Fill in each numbered blank with a suitable word: (7 0,2 = 1,4 pts)
 Food plays an (27) .....................part in the development of nations. In countries where food scarce, people have to (28)..................... most of their time getting enough to eat.This usually slows down progress, because men have little time to devote to science, industry, government, and art. In nations where food is (29) ...................and easy to get, men have more time to spend in activities that lead to progress, and enjoyment of leisure. The problem of (30) ......................good food for everybody has not yet been solved. 
Many wars have been fought for(31) ................... . But it is no longer necessary to go to war for food. Nations are beginning to put scientific knowledge to work for a (32) ................... of their food problems. They work together in the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) to help hungry nations (33) ................more food.
c. Fill each blank with the appropriate form of the word given in brackets. (0) has been done as an example. (7 0,2 = 1,4 pts)
0. The temperature is very .. variable...at this time of the year. 	(vary)
34. Every year we celebrate our ......................	(depend)
35. There’s no ...................service in the United Kingdom. 	(nation)
36. He gets very angry if you ...................with his ideas. 	(agree)
37. She smiles so ..................., doesn’t she? 	(attract)
38. The Internet has  developed in every field.	(increase)
39. I quarreled with my  ,and he dismissed me.	(employ)
40. The teacher asked each student to write a .... of his hometown.	(describe)
d. Identify the error in the following sentences. (10 0,2 = 2,0 pts)
41. They asked a lot of questions, checked their figures, and came up with a best solution.
 A B C D
42. We will be interviewed all job applicants as soon as their papers have been processed.
 A B C D
43. This telephone isn’t as cheap the other one, but it works much better.
 A B C D
44. That secretary of mine is so efficient that she always amazes myself with her speed. 
 A B C D
45. Most students were able of finding good jobs three to six months after graduation. 
	 A B C D
46. We were made learning fifty new words every week.
 A B C D
47. Both cattle or railroads helped build the city of Chicago.
 A B C D
48. Mrs. Adams was surprise that her son and his friend had gone to the mountains to ski.
 A	 B	 C	 D
49. The letter was sent by special